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Example (Continued)

Take arbitrary x; we proceed by induction over n.

We have x0 = 1 = (prod1 <= i <= 0 x) and thus the induction base holds.

We take arbitrary n in N and assume

(1) xn = (prod1 <= i <= n x).

We have to prove

(2) xn+1 = (prod1 <= i <= n+1 x).

We know

xn+1 = (definition exponentiation)
x * xn = (1)
x * (prod1 <= i <= n x) = (definition (prod ))
(prod1 <= i <= n+1 x)

which implies (2).


Author: Wolfgang Schreiner
Last Modification: November 24, 1999

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